Posted by: SATYASRINIVAS | May 26, 2007



Q.2 A ladder lies against a wall. The top of the ladder reaches 8 ft. above the ground. When the ladder slips two metres away from the wall, the top of the ladder touches the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder is
1) 15 2) 17 3) 8 4) 10
Q.3 A takes 4 days to do a work. B takes twice as long as A. C takes twice as long as B and D takes twice as long as C. They are made in groups of two. One of the groups takes two third of the time taken by second pair. What is the combination of the first pair?
1) A,C 2) A,D 3) B,C 4) B,D
Q.4 A student got marks in the ratio 6:7:8:9:10 in five subjects having equal maximum marks. In all, he scored 60% marks. In how many subjects, he got more than 50% ?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) None of these
Q.5 What is the least value of x for which expression x3 – 7×2 + 11x – 5 gives positive quantity?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 8 4) None of these
Q.9 Ram is having 158 coins of one rupee. He puts it in different bags, so that he can hand over the cash of any denomination required between Rs. 1 to Rs. 158. What is the least no. of bags required ?
1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) None of these
Q.10 Train X starts from A towards B. At same time, train Y start from B towards A. Train X travels at speed of 70 kmph and Y travels at 50 kmph. While X does not stop anywhere on the way, the train Y stops at station C in between at 60km from B for 15 minutes. At what distance from A they would meet
1) 115km 2) 112km 3) 120km 4) None of these
Q.11 There are three classes X,Y and Z. Average of class X is 83. Average of Class Y is 76. Average of class Z is 85. Average of class X and Y is 79, average of class Y and Z is 81. Find average of three Classes.
1) 81 2) 81.5 3) 82 4) 84
Q.12 There are five nos. a,b,c,d,e having value of 2,5,6,10,4, not necessarily in this order. We have following clues
1) c + a = e 2) e + a = d 3) b-d = d
Which of the following is true ?
1) 10-5 = b-d 2) 4 + 6 = a+e 3) 4-2 = b-d 4) None of these.
Q.13 How many 5 digit different nos. can be formed which is divisible by 4 from the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition.
1)144 2)168 3)192 4)None of these
Q.14 All the pages of a book starting from page 1 are summed. One of the pages has been added twice, and the total thus obtained is 1000. Which is the page that has been added twice ?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) None of these.
Q.15 In a certain system product of 44 X 11 is represented as 2124 find how 1453 can be represented in decimal system ?
1)248 2) 346 3) 393 4) 410
Q.16 All positive consecutive integers starting from 1 were written on the blackboard. One of the students entered the class and erased one of the numbers. Now the average of the remaining numbers is 35 7/17.The erased number is _______.
1)17 2)8 3)9 4)None of these
Q.18 In a four digit number, the sum of digits in the first and fourth place is twice the sum of the digits in the third and fourth place. The difference in the first and third digit is equal to the second digit. What is the digit in the third place?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1
Q.19 A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 35, the person multiplied by 53, and the product went up by 540.What was the raised product?
1) 780 2) 1040 3) 1590 4) None of these
Q.20 Euclid had a triangle in his mind .The longest side is 20 and the other side is 10.Area of the triangle is 80.The third side is__
1) root 260 2) root 240 3) root 250 4)root 210
Q.21 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/9071?
1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Saturday 4) Sunday
Q.22 In a fibonacci series, difference between squares of 6th and 7th terms was 517. What is the 8th term.
1) 32 2) 65 3) 83 4) None of these
Q.23 There is a circular field having four doors in North, East, West and South. A person walks 3 meters from the North door. Another person comes out of the South door and walks 9 meter towards East so that he is just able to see the first man. What is the diameter of the field.
1) 12 2) 15 3) 9 4) None of these.
Q.25 Ram has 128 boxes with him. He has to put atleast 120 oranges in one box and 144 at the most. Find the least number of boxes which will have the same number of oranges.
1) 5 2) 6 3) 103 4) Can’t determine.
Q.26 There are two persons A and B who joined an organization on 1st Jan 1970. A joined at Rs. 300 and annual increment of Rs.30. B gets salary of Rs. 200 and hike of Rs. 50 per six month. Find the total amount distributed at the end of 31st December 1979.
1) 91200 2) 92800 3) 97200 4) None of these
Q.29 If X and Y are positive integers and X + Y = 1, what is the least value of
(X + 1/X)2 + (Y+1/Y)2 ?
1) 24 2) 12.5 3) 20 4) None of these
Q.30 2 b and c> d and abcd =1 ,then which of the following is correct?
1) bd ³ ac 2) a+c > b+d 3) a2 b 5 and y 1 2) 4x > 5y 3) –4x 0 2) (x-z)y2 > 0 3) (x-y)2z > 0 4) None of these
Q.40 There is a rectangular field of length 60 m and width 20 m. A path of uniform width and area 516 sq m surrounds the field. Find the width of path
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Q.41 If abcd = 1 then the minimum value of (1+a)(1+b) (1+c) (1+d) is __________
1) 8 2) 16 3) 4 4) None of these
Q no.42 -44 are based on the following data:
A player X played an inning such that
r1=Scores of completed innings.
r2=Scores of incomplete innings.
n1= number of completed innings.
n2=number of incomplete innings.
B=r1+r2 / n1 C=r1/n1 + max { 0,r2-r1/n2}
D= r1+r2/ n1+n2
Q.42 Which of the following holds?
1) C ³ B ³ D 2) D ³ B ³ C 3) B ³ C ³ D 4) None of these.
Q.43 If B=100 and in next innings he scored 45 not out, then which of the following holds?
1) B>C 2) C>B 3) C>D 4) None of these
Q.44 If total number of matches played were 20 and the score was 620,which of the following is true?
1) B=31 2) D=31 3) C>D 4) None of these.
Q.45 What is the minimum value of value of x for which the expression x3-5×2+11x-5 gives positive values?
1) 5 2) 8 3) 4 4) None of these.
Q.46 One boy while solving a Quadratic equation takes the constant term wrong and gets the roots (4,3). Another boy takes the coefficient of x wrong and gets the roots (2,3). What are the actual roots?
1) (6,1) 2) (-4,3) 3) (2,-3) 4) None of these.
Q.47 If A,B,C are running a race A beats B by 12m while B beats C by 8 m. What is the length of the track ?
1) 48 2) 30 3) 50 4) None of these.
Q.48 The difference in the money between A and B is Rs.1450.C has money twice of B and difference in the money between A and C is Rs.700.So the amount with A is?
1) 750 Rs. 2) 2200Rs. 3) 800Rs. 4) None of these.
Q.49 P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100 m. When P completes one round, Q is still 700 m behind. When S completes one round, Q is 300 m ahead of him. How far from the starting point three of them will meet for the first time ?
1) 168 2) 2568 3) 2100 4) None of these
Q.50 x, y, z are distinct integers such as x is positive, y is lesser than x and z is more than x and y. Then which of the following is true ?
1) x y³ 0 2) x-y > 0 3) x y z >0 4) None of these

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14.(1) 15.(3) 16.(4) 17.(2) 18.(2) 19.(3) 20. (1)
21.(1) 22.(4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.(3)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40.(3)
41. (2) 42. (3) 43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50.(2)
2) 15

3) 20

4) 10

Directions for Qns. 27 to 30. The first pie-chart gives in percentage the quantity of oil carried through different modes of transportation. The total quantity of oil transported is 12 million tonnes. The second pie-chart gives in percentage the cost involved for transportation of oil for different modes. The total cost involved is Rs. 30 million.

Q.27 What is the cost of transportation per tonne through roads (in Rs.)?

(1)1 (2)1.5 (3)0.5 (4)2

Q.28 The minimum cost of transportation is through which means ?

(1)Rail (2)Road (3)Ship (4)Pipeline.

Q.29 The maximum cost of transportation is through which means ?

(1)Air (2)Ship (3)Rail (4)Pipeline.

Q.30. If P, Q, R denotes the cost per tonne for transportation through pipeline, ship and road respectively, then which of the following order is correct ?

(1) P>R>Q (2) Q>P>R (3) R>Q>P (4) P>Q>R

Directions for Qns. 31 to 34. The following two bar graphs gives the breakup of man-work hours for a software company. The first bar graph gives the offshore and onsite man-work hours for three different work-activities of the organization. The second bar graph gives the offshore man-work hours for the same 3 activities.

Q.31 Of the total work hours involved , what percent was devoted to Coding ?

(1)55% (2)45% (3)65% (4)60%

Q.32 If 50% of the offshore coding hours is equally distributed among the onsite activities, then which of the

following is true.

(1)Onsite design hours becomes almost equal to offshore coding hours.

(2)Onsite design hours becomes less than offshore coding hours.

(3)Onsite testing hours become less than offshore coding hours.

(4)Onsite coding hours become less than offshore coding hours.

Q.33 The actual hours devoted to offshore design falls short of the estimated offshore design hours by how

much percent.

(1)15% (2)10% (c)20% (d)30%

Q.34. The total onsite hours devoted to testing and design corresponds to which of the following?

(1)It is more than the offshore coding hours.

(2)It is more than the onshore coding hours.

(3)It is less than the estimated offshore testing and design hours.

(4)It is more than the estimated offshore testing and design hours.


Amit wants to see some plays. There are six plays going on. Amit wants to see all of them, as well as take a lunch break for one hour from 12:30p.m tp 1:30p.m. The names of the plays, their durations and timings are all mentioned in the following table.

Number Play Duration Timings

1 Sati Savitri 1 hour 9:00a.m, 2:00 p.m

2 Tipu Sultan 1 hour 10:00a.m, 11:00 a.m

3 Sundar Kand 30 minutes 10:30 a.m , 2:30 p.m

4 Hayavardhana 1 hour 10:00 a.m, 11:00 a.m

5 Nagamandala 1 hour 11:00 a.m 2:00 p.m

6 Jhansi ki Rani 30 minutes 10:30 a.m, 1:30 p.m

Q.35 Which is the best possible plan for Amit.

(1). Sundar Kand first, Jhansi Ki Rani third, Tipu Sultan fifth.

(2) Sati Savitri first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.

(3) Jhansi ki Rani first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.

(4) None of the above


Elle is three times Yogesh.

Zahir is half Wahida

Zahir is younger than Yogesh.

Q.36. Which of the following are necessary to find the age of each.

(1). Wahida is same age as that of Yogesh.

(2). Age of Zahir is ten.

(3). Both are required.

(4). None of these

Q. 37. Which of the following is true?

(1). Elle is the eldest.

(2) Wahida can be elder to Elle

(3) Wahida is eldert to Yogesh

(4) None of the above


Peter owned a butcher’s shop. In Peter’s absence, a dog ran away with a piece of meat. When Peter returned, the other shopkeepers, who were jealous of him, gave two statements each, one of which was a lie.

Ist Shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had no collar.

2nd shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had a short tail.

3rd shopkeeper: The dog was white. It had a collar.

Q. 38 Therefore, the dog

(1). Was white with a short tail and no collar.

(2) was black with a long tail and a collar.

(3) was black with a short tail and a collar.

(4) was white with a long tail and no collar.

Directions: Certain sets are defined as follows.

If A is a set of all mothers and B is a set of all women, then, C =A.B represents all women who are mothers. D = AÈ B represents all elements that are either in A or in B or in both. If there are no women who are mothers, then, A.B = f , where f is a null set.

V is set of Vertebrates, F is the set of Fish, D is the set of Dogs, P is Pluto, M is the set of Mammals, A is the set of Alsatians.

Q 39. If X = M.D and X = D, then, which of the following is true?

(1) All dogs are mammals

(2) Some dogs are mammals

(3) All mammals are dogs

(4) None of the above

Q 40. If P.D = f and P È D = M, then, which of the following is true?

(1) Pluto or any of the dogs are mammals.

(2) Pluto and dogs are mammals

(3) Pluto is a dog and is a mammal.

(4) None of the above.

Q 41. If P È D = A

(1) All dogs are Alsatians

(2) Pluto is an Alsatian

(3) No dog is an Alsatian

(4) Either (1) or (2).

There are 3 families…….Bannerjees, Guptas and Sharmas.Each family has a feast every Sunday at different timings of 12:00 , 1:00 and 2:00.Each family eats different dishes and uses different coloured dinner sets.

The Bannerjees eat sambhar but not in the red dinner set.

The last family does not eat karela or brinjal.

The other dinner sets are yellow and blue in colour.

The Guptas use the yellow dinner set.

Q 42. Which of the following is true ?

1) The Bannerjees eat at 12.

2) The last family eats sambhar in the blue dinner set.

3) The Guptas eat karela in the yellow dinner set.

4) None of these.

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1. 3 2. 4 3.3 4. 4 5. 3 6. 1 7. 4 8. 3 9. 4 10.3

11. 1 12. 1 13. 4 14. 1 15. 2 16. 3 17. 4 18. 1 19.2 20. 4

21. 2 22. 4 23. 2 24. 2 25. 1 26. 2 27. 2 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2

31. 1 32. 1 33. 2 34. 3 35. 2 36. 3 37. 4 38. 1 39. 1 40. 1

41. 4 42.2 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Doing a number of tests paid off. I know doing these tests caused much discomfort as scores were not able to cross 70 or so. But then the actual CAT turned out just like some of our papers, maybe a little easier.

The paper was easier than expected, but then the questions were not straightforward. They required some thought and needed some calculations. The verbal section threw a surprise, but an easy one at that. The passages in reading comprehension were also attemptible.

Once again, CAT looked for mental toughness, or, the ability to perform under pressure. What is one to do when each question is a challenge of sorts? When one is aware of the clock ticking away, the pressure mounts and one is tempted to make blind guesses. Hopefully, CAT aspirants did not make that mistake.

First, let me look at the pattern of the paper. The pattern was very much expected: 3 sections, 150 questions. So children used to a pattern of 3 sections were comfortable. The number of questions is decreasing with the years: I remember the times when CAT had 240 questions. One can be rest assured that in future it will have 150 questions, or even lesser number of questions.

The Verbal Section had a mix of comprehension and English; and the surprise was that there was some direct vocabulary this time. Fortunately the words were all from our wordlists: parsimonious, mellow, disuse, facetious, and the like. The difference was that this time dictionary usage was given and one had to pick out the choice which was not part of the usage. Children who had done our word exercises were definitely at an advantage, since not a single word was asked that we had not done in class. Some of the questions were expected: parajumbles though this time there were ABCDE and even ABCDEF, that is sentence arrangement of 5 or 6 sentences.

The passages too were more or less expected: There were 6 of them, on the following topics:
1) Racial Discrimination,
2) History of Universe,
3) Children’s phonetic skills,
4) Billy Holiday,
5) Kurusawa’s characters, and
6) Democracy.
The number of questions per passage were slightly less, and there were a total of 30 questions on comprehension. There was no technical passage this time.

The Maths section had some surprises too. No questions on functions, or higher maths. This time there was some arithmetic, with some direct questions. The question on dry grapes was asked (answer 2.5!) as also one on roots. Fortunately we had done many such questions. Surprise, there was also a question on calendars this time (find the day on 9 Dec 1971) and something on averages. On the whole, the section was attemptible though, as I said before, there was need for calculation and one should not have hurried. There were some questions on umber systems as well. The idea was to keep cool and keep attempting the questions you knew. The tendency in these type or papers is to lose patience and mark blindly, in the hope that some will be right at least. This is terrible. So, even if you were able to do just 10-20 questions out of 55, that was all right. At least they would be right. I have always been saying that no matter how difficult the paper, there will always be 10-15 questions which you can do. The same applied this year too.

The DI section was comparatively easier. Some sets were quite difficult but others were easy. The question on Data Sufficiency were relatively simple, though some graphs required some calculations. This section was comparatively easy. The questions on Reasoning were scary, since they were stand-alone questions, but some of these should also have been attempted.

What could have been done in such a paper? Depending on your area of strength, you should have started with Maths or Verbal, done the easy questions and sailed through, avoiding the speed breakers. The first round should have seen you spot at least 15 questions in Maths, another 15 in Verbal and 12-15 in Data. One to two passages in Comprehension should have been attempted in the first round. Having done 50 questions or so, your confidence would have been gained and then you should have attempted the rest of the questions, taking each one separately and figured out the logic.

The paper was certainly not for people who had not done difficult type of tests, nor for the guess-makers. Thought was needed on each and every question; the paper could not have been done in a hurry. Some questions required quick wits — again this would be difficult if one was tense. But I wonder if students were able to spot the completely easy ones.

Children who gave the CAT this year have brought in a large number of questions. We should be able to offer the complete paper in a few days.

It is being said that the score for IIMs this year would be 70+. I am sure that students who did the paper intelligently, will be able to reach that score. However, in such a paper, the number of attempts is no criteria for judging one’s performance. What matters is whether it was a balanced score and whether one was able to control the number of mistakes.

1. CAT is finally out of the Bag. 9 Dec 2001 (the D Day) finally arrived. Before the exam, outside exam Hall, various guess work by students on No. of sections, questions, Difficulty level etc. was the order of the Day. Finally at 12.30 p.m., the CAT was over. Mixed reaction could be observed on the faces of the students. The PAPER was on similar pattern of last year viz. 3 sections, but this year only 150 questions, 2 hour paper without any sectional time limits. There were not many SURPRISES.
2. By and large, students felt that Quantitative Ability (QA) section was comparatively simpler. The English Reading Comprehension (RCs) were comparatively tougher but apart from of a few questions remaining English and Data Interpretation (DI) questions were average.
3. Detailed Analysis of the respective sections is discussed below.
Outline of the Paper At a Glance
Section No. Subject No. of Questions.
1. QA /Problem Solving 50
2. English (RC & EU) 50
3. DI & Data Sufficiency
( incl. 10 questions on analytical reasoning) 50
Total Questions 150
Detailed Analysis – Section – I ( QA )
Detailed Analysis – Quantitative Ability (QA) Section
Sr. No Subject / Topic No. of Questions Difficulty Level / Remarks
1. Arithmetic Easy/Average/Difficult/Very Diff.
1a. Number system 14 3 5 4 2
1b. Averages 03 1 1 1
1c. Percentages 03 1 2
1d. SI & CI
1e. Profit, Loss & Discount
1f. Ratio and Proportion 02 1 1
1g. Time, Speed and Distance 06 1 2 2 1
1h. Work, Wages (Time & Work) 02 1 1
1i. Calendars 01 1
1j. General Arithmatics 01 1

2 Algebra
2a. Permutation and Combination 1 1
2b. linear and Quadratic Equation 7 1 3 1 2
2c. Set Theory
2d. Functions- Maxima /Minima 1 1
3. Geometry & Mensuration 7 2 2 1 2
4. Trigonometry 1 1
5. Others 1 1
6. Total 50

Comments and Analysis :
Overall the level of difficulty was average. Students found this to be surprising as it was speculated as a very difficult section. Format/contents of the questions were as follows :-
Six Questions:- Based on time and distance which also included a problem based on streams and another based on races and games. 2 of them were also based on a small graph representing amount of fuel consumed varying with the speed of the vehicle.
Two Questions:- Based on time and work were direct application on formulae
Seven Questions:- Based on Geometry and Mensuration were by and large simple and could be solved comparing the giving options.
Fourteen Questions:- Mainly number system, 1 on permutation & combination.
Eleven Questions:- Based on basic arithmetic and algebraic fundamentals, formulation of linear and Quadratic Equation.
Total Questions 50
Suggested Time Allotment for QA Section – 40 to 45 min
Suggested Questions Attempts – 40 Plus
Likely cut off score – 35 Plus
Detailed Analysis – Section – II ( RC & EU ) RC
1. Passage I
a) Subject – Narration of Film
b) Approx Words – 1000
c) Number of Questions – 6
d) Type of Questions – Specific questions mainly from the illustrative matter used in the passage.
e) Difficulty level – Average
f) Other related aspects & comments – The passage did not contain difficult vocabulary or language. However, the entire structure was soaked in the subject matter alone.
2. Passage II
a) Subject – An obituary of a single named Billie Holiday.
b) Approx Words – 800
c) Number of Questions – 4
d) Type of Questions – General questions by and large.
e) Difficulty level – Average
f) Other related aspects & comments – The passage was simple and interesting which helped to remember the contexts of the passage.
3. Passage III
a) Subject – U.N.Conference on racial and cast decimation.
b) Approx Words – 800
c) Number of Questions – 5
d) Type of Questions – Not straight abstractive from the passage.
e) Difficulty level – Difficult
f) Other related aspects & comments – Was a general topic but the questions were not direct abstraction from the passage.
4. Passage IV
a) Subject – Astronomy based passage-having concepts of Dark Age, big bank theory and quasars, etc.
b) Approx Words – 750
c) Number of Questions – 4
d) Type of Questions – By and large questions.
e) Difficulty level – Difficult
f) Other related aspects & comments – Technical language.
5. Passage V
a) Subject – Phonological skills in young children
b) Approx Words – 1200
c) Number of Questions – 6
d) Type of Questions – Could not be deducted from the passage directly.
e) Difficulty level – Difficult
f) Comments – Language was average but the passage contained a lot of obscurity.
6. Passage VI
a) Subject-Leadership and democracy.
b) Approx Words-750
c) Number of Questions-5
d) Type of Questions-Based on facts derived from the passage.
e) Difficulty Level-Difficult
f) Comments-Concept was general but the answers could not be derived easily from the passage.
7. General Comments: RC Passages
a) The passages were all reasonably lengthy (above 800 words).
b) Language was easy & simple. However, each passage had its own technical paths to tread.
c) Subjects range from very general to a very technical one.
d) Questions were not sequenced on any difficulty level.
e) Almost all questions had their answers drawn from the passages
8. English Usage :
Exercise Set I
a) Subject – Parajumbles ( 5 sentences type )
b) No. of. questions – 5
c) Difficulty Level – 3 problems – Average, 2 problems-Difficult.
Exercise Set – II
a) Contextual usages-Words to be phrased in properly to fit in the correct context.
b) No. of. Questions – 5
b) Difficulty Level – Average
Exercise Set III
a) Subject: Fill in the blanks
b) No. of Questions : 5
c) Type of Questions : There were 2 blanks in each sentence. The best alternative of a set of 2 words had to be chosen from among the four options given. e. g.
In these black and depressing times of ______________ prices, non performing governments and ___________________ crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us, Indians, a lot to cheer about.
1. escalating, increasing (Suggested Ans.)
2. spiraling, booming
3. spiraling, roaring
4. ascending , debilitating
c) Difficulty Level – Easy
Comments – It was relatively easy to arrive at the correct option by the process of elimination.
Exercise Set IV
a) Subject – Matching the Dictionary and usage based statements.
b) No of Questions – 5
c) Type of Questions – 2 Groups in vertical base were given, each having 5 sub-groups the first vertical group containing dictionary group meaning and the second corresponding group containing usage based statements were given to match with each other.
d) Difficulty Level – Average
RC & EU Section Over all comments :
10. Difficulty Level :
RC – difficult
EU – Easy / Average
11. Suggested Time Allotment RC & EU Section – 35 to 40 min.
12. Suggested Questions Attempts – 40 Plus
13.Likely cut off Score – 30 Plus.
Section – III

Detailed Analysis — Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency Section
Ex. No. Subject / Topic No. of Questions Difficulty Level/ Remarks
1 ONE TABULAR Data various airports with there codes, locations, passengers etc. 5 Easy/Average
2 ONE TABULAR Data of various types of garments in three different colors, each available in four different sizes. 4 Easy / Average
3 ONE SEGREGATED BAR DIAGRAM four bars each divided into five different segments representing the five different operations undertaken by four companies. 4 Difficult
4 ONE BAR DIAGRAM giving data on coding decoding and testing (Three stages in a software products life cycle). 6 Difficult
5 ONE PIE DIAGRAM containing 2 pies one giving transportation amount and another total transportation cost. 3 Average
6 ONE DIAGRAMATIC REPRESENTAION five cities connected through pipe lines. Problems based on demand and supply and also the capacity of the connecting pipe line. 4 Easy
7 Four Set theory based problems using concepts of intersection and union of the sets. 5 Average/Difficult
8 ANALYTICAL REASONING data given as a form of small passage which included relationship caselets, selection of groups age related problem etc. 10 Average
9 TABULAR DATA giving onsite and offsite options. 6 Difficult
9 DATA SUFFICIENCY 3 Easy /Average
10 Difficulty Level / Comments : Average/Difficult
11 Suggested Time Allotment for Section : 40 minutes
12. Suggested questions Attempt : 40 Plus
13. Likely Cutoff Score : 30 Plus
Analysis Summary And Overall Expert Comments – CAT 2001
1. Comments – Paper Pattern similar to CAT-2000. QA section Difficulty Level lower than the other two sections i.e. English & DI.
2. CAT 2001 Paper Likely Cut Off Score
English RC & EU Section – 30Plus
QA/Problem Solving Section – 35Plus
DI & DS Section – 30 Plus
OVER ALL FOR IIM (For Interview Call) – 95 Plus
OVER ALL for MDI & SP JAIN – 85 – 90 plus
UBS, GOA – 75 to 80

3. Strategies Suggested for CAT 2002 :
– Shifting trends towards analytical Reasoning. Focus Accordingly.
– Trend towards QA/Problem Solving section becoming more logic based more focus on Number System and algebraic equations. Prepare/Practice QA more effectively.
– More emphasis required on speed reading for RC Passages.
– Time Planning importance on the increase.
– No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Sections could be 3 ( as for CAT ‘2000 & CAT 2001) or could even go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc.
– Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly.
CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
No. of Passage 5 5 6
Approx. Words in Passage 1475 (6) 1200 (8) 1000 (6)
& (No. of Questions) 850 (6) 1100 (8) 800 (4)
825 (5) 1100 (8) 800 (5)
875 (5) 1100 (8) 750 (4)
850 (5) 1000 (8) 1200 (5)
750 (5)
Total Words & (No.of 5100 (27) 5500 (40) 5300 (30)
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT2001
Parajumbles Questions 10 10 5
(4/5/6 Type)
Sentence Correction 8
Inferential /
Deductive Reasoning 10
Fill in the Blanks 5 5
Sentence Arrangement
(4 /6 Statements)
Short Paragraphs
Substitute Underlines Portion
in sentence
Contextual usage 5
Match the two columns 5
Total Questions ———— ———— ————–
28 15 20
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
Arithmetic Questions
– Number System 10 15 14
– Averages, percentage/Mixtures 3 2 6
– Time, Speed & Distance 3 1 6
– General Arithmetic 3 8 6
Algebra Questions 9 9 7
Geometry & Mensuration 6 2 7
Permutations & Combination 3 1 1
Maxima & Minima Related 2 2 1
Set Theory(Functions & Graphs) 4 4
Graphical Situations 7 3 2
Verbal Logic/Logical Situations 5 8
TOTAL : 55 55 50

Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
Line Graph Questions 4 6 –
Line Chart 5 – –
Tabular Data 5 14 15
Pie Chart 6 – 3
Case – 5 –
Bar Diagram – 10 14
Data Suffiency 10 10 3
Critical Reasoning – 10 –
Analytical Reasoning – – 10
Set Theory – – 5
TOTAL : 30 55 50

Comparative Analysis – Trends & Expert Comments
1.Change in Format :- There is a clear increasing trend towards change in format and flexibility in number of sections and questions. CAT paper NO MORE STEREOTYPED.
2. Analytical and Logical Reasoning :- Focus shifting towards this.
3.Conventional Formula Based Questions :- A paradigm shift away from such questions.
4. Level of Difficulty :- Trend towards SURPRISES. Quant Ability/Problem solving section emerging as a less difficult section this year and reading comprehension getting difficult over the years. Increasing competition for CAT is possibly one of the major reason for this and QA/Problem solving section can eliminate large Number of students from the race.
5. Time Planning & Accuracy :- Increasing Importance towards these aspects.
6. No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Section could be 3
(as for CAT ’2000 & CAT 2001) or could go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc.
7. Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly.


Section I – English Questions 55
English Usage Questions
• ¨ Parajumbles ( 4-sentence type)
• ¨ Parajumbles ( 5-sentence type)
• ¨ Parajumbles ( 6-sentence type)
5 10

Total 15
Reading Comprehension Words Questions
• North Indian Classical Music)
• Electronic & Magnetic Storage Technology
• Settlement of Tribes
• Abstractionism
• Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) 1300
1300 8
Total 6900 40
Every test taker must have let off a sigh of relief after seeing the RC passages. One should have spent about 40 minutes in this section attempting 3 passages that were relatively easy, and mostly contained fact-based questions, amounting to 24 questions. The language was simple, and comprehension wasn’t difficult at all. The sentence completion questions were also easy as were the parajumbles and all 15 questions should have been attempted. Thus, totally one could have attempted around 35 – 40 questions in 40 minutes, achieving a score of 30.
Section II – Quantitative Questions 55
Topic No. of Questions
• Number Systems
• Rest of Arithmetic • 11
• 4 15

• Functionss
• Progressions
• Equations/Inequalities • 8
• 1
• 3 12

• Co-ordinate + Graphs
• Plane Geometry • 6
• 3 9

The pattern of this section was not very different from last year – most of the questions were reasoning driven. For example, the set of questions on cricket was very simple, but most people dropped it because of lack of comfort with cases. A large number of questions could have been attempted by working with choices.
The paper would look difficult to someone who was not very comfortable with functions and Algebra – though the number of questions from these topics was not high, they presented a prominent front in the paper. But out of the 12 problems in functions 7 of them had nothing but a intimidating facade.
A second look at the paper would have enabled one to identify about 15-17 one-liners that were a straight go! An allocation of about 40 minutes would have made an attempt of about 25 fairly achievable.
Section III – DI, DS and Inferential Reasoning Questions 55
Data Sufficiency 10
Data Interpretation 30
• Table- IT Industry
• Table – Factories & Employment
• Table – Export-Import Intensity
• Bar Chart – Foreign Equity Inflow to GDP Ratio
• Multiple Bar Chart – 4 bar charts (for 1990 – 98)
• Line Chart – Variable Cost / Marginal Cost 6
INFERENTIAL REASONING (short passages) 10
This section, comprising reasoning and data interpretation, could have come as a relief after the quant section. The key to this section was to attempt the DS and Inferential Reasoning questions and then pick up the easier sets of data. The five Logical Reasoning questions were lengthy to read, took time to solve, and hence, should have been the last resort as far as this section was concerned.
The tables on export-import intensity, factories and employment were a bit confusing and could have been left. The table on IT sector, was easy to understand and the questions were also direct. Similarly, the line chart on variable cost of Widget Manufacturing by ABC Ltd. and bar chart on Foreign Equity Inflow were straightforward. The set of data with four bar charts looked intimidating, but was very simple and should have been attempted.
Out of the 10 questions in Inferential Reasoning, 8 were easy. The options did not seem too confusing, but for someone who was daunted by the size of the paragraphs, these should not have been attempted at all! An attempt of about 6-7 questions was achievable.
An attempt of 7 to 8 in DS, 15 in DI and 7 to 8 in Inferential Reasoning was possible in 40 min. A net score of 25 was definitely on.

Comprehensive Analysis of the Common Admission Test
(for admission to the IIMs and other allied institutions in India)
Total Time allotted = 120 minutes (2 hours)
Total number of Sections = 3
Total Questions = 165
Section 1 English Usage + Reading Comprehension No. of questions = 55
Section 2 Mathematical Aptitude + Logical Reasoning No. of questions = 55
Section 3 Data Interpretation + Data Sufficiency + EU/RC + LR No. of
questions = 55
1. CAT had 3 sections overall just like the previous year
(as compared to the conventional 4 sections that have been coming for the past 10 years before that). A basic reason for this could have been the examiners’ attempt to put stress on the students… however, since the students’ already knew the pattern of the CAT and many had anticipated almost what it would be like this year, it was a sigh of relief for many ! (not that it would matter much as far as scores are concerned) It must be mentioned here that this pattern along with many others were taken up in the MM courseware and we are sure that our students would have benefited immensely from that rigorous practice.
(2) English Usage was based primarily on “understanding of language and not cramming of words.”
• Almost 10 questions were based on “Paragraph Formation” and “Rearrangement of sentences”. This trend has been seen for the past 10 years. (MM students have a major advantage over others – this practice has been done in the class hundreds of times.)
• Typical “Fill in the Blanks” type questions came again (they were not a part of CAT 1999). These have been done repeatedly in the MM classroom sessions.
• No direct questions on Vocabulary came this time. No synonyms-antonyms types, no verbal analogies types, no odd-man-out types.
(3) Reading Comprehension was not very easy but was manageable for
the sincere student. A mix of very direct and some indirect questions
• Direct RC (passages followed by set of questions) had 5 passages and 40 questions. This came as part of the Language (EU + RC) section.
• Indirect RC (small passages followed by ONE question) had 10 questions. This came in the third section (DI +DS + LR + RC)
• MM students have a great edge over others as these types of passages have been discussed several times in the classes and the Library has several books of these types for students’ reference.
(4) English questions had several RC based “summary-type” questions.
(5) Not a single question based on Verbal Analogies, Synonyms, Antonyms, Odd Man Out was asked. The message is clear – No direct vocabulary questions please !
(6) Data Sufficiency has been standardised for the past 3 years. “Any one statement alone is sufficient” type directions came again. A total of 10 questions appeared.
(7) Data Interpretation was very easy this time compared to last few years. This is so because there were several very direct questions in the DI sets.
(8) A lot of Logical Reasoning based questions came this year spread across two sections.
(9) Maths section was not a cakewalk. Though about 20 questions were direct, the rest needed a lot of prior exposure and practice to manage. An interesting thing that has emerged is that the easiest of questions get couched in the most abstruse language and look difficult !
(10) The overall structure of CAT was clear –
Language – Usage + Comprehension 55 questions
Mathematics — Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
Data Analysis — Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
(11) An ideal time division could have been –
Scheme No. 1 (for those more comfortable with Language)
Priority 1
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 10-15 minutes
Priority 2
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 30-35 min
Priority 3
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 4
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 30-35 min
Scheme no. 2 (for those more comfortable with Quantitative)
Priority 1
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 2
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 25-30 min
Priority 3
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 35 min
Priority 4
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 20 minutes
A Bird’s Eye-View of CAT 2000
(This is just a sketch… exact sectionwise details given later.)
The Basic Structure of each section was :
Section 1: English Usage + Reading Comprehension
Q.1 to Q.5 Paragraph formation of 5 statements
(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MM’s courseware for CAT).
Q.6 to Q.10 Fill in the blanks type questions. There were 2 blanks to be
filled in each question. Very direct questions. (*ample practice
material of hundreds of questions given in MM’s courseware for
CAT that included even 4 blanks per question!).
Q.11 to Q.15 Paragraph formation of 6 statements (4 between 2 types)
(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MM’s courseware for CAT).
Q.16 to Q.23 Reading Comprehension passage no. 1 on ‘Crisis faced by the
School of Abstractionist Art’.
Q.24 to Q.31 Reading Comprehension passage no. 2 on ‘Differences in
approach between North Indian classical music and Western
classical music’.
Q.32 to Q. 39 Reading Comprehension passage no. 3 on ‘MNCs in
Agribusiness and TRIPS’.
Q.40 to Q.47 Reading Comprehension passage no. 4 on ‘Different Types of
Storage devices used in computers’.
Q.48 to Q.55 Reading Comprehension passage no. 5 on ‘The Conquest of
the West by the European Settlers’ (*ample practice material
of hundreds of passages given in MM’s courseware for CAT.
These passages were almost identical to the ones in
MM’s study material).
Section 2: Mathematical Aptitude
Q. Conversion of Decimal into Fractions type questions à Number theory
based question à A must do type à would take 15 seconds at the most.
Q. Linear equations with tabulated data given for X and Y à Linear equation
theory based question à Can be done type à would take 60 seconds at
the most.
Q. Generation of Numbers series (A1, A2 types) à Number theory based
question à A must do type à would take 30 seconds at the most.
Q. Value of a given fraction à Number theory based question à A can do
type à would take 80 seconds at the most.
Q. Truck travelling at a rate and fuel consumption types à Percentages and
Time-Speed theory based question à A can do type à would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Sequence of 7 consecutive integers given and average is asked à Number
theory based question à A can do type à would take 45 seconds at the
Q. Given conditions on X and Y, find the true statement à Logic and Number
theory based question à A must do type à would take 30 seconds at the
Q. One red, three white, and two blue flags to be arranged, finding the
number of arrangements à Permutations and combinations based
question à A can do type à would take 60 seconds at the most.
Q. Given a set of integers X and some conditions à Number theory and Set
theory based question à A can do type à would take 50 seconds at the
Q. Three distinct integers X, Y, Z positive and odd, finding the false statement
à Logic and Number theory based question à A must do type à would
take 30 seconds at the
Q. A set of prime numbers > 2 and g (x, y) when x, y g(x,y) for x,y>1
(d) None of these
8. If f(x,y) = g(x,y) then
(a) x = y (b) x + y = 1 (c) x = – ¼ y = 5/4 (d) Both b & c
9. Convert 1982 in base 10 to base 12.
(a) 1129 (b) 1292 (c) 1192 (d) 1832
10. Sameer has to make a telephone call to his friend Harish. Unfortunately he does not remember the 7 – digit phone number. But he remembers the first 3 digits are 635 or 674, the number is odd and there is exactly one 9 in the number. The minimum number of trials that Sameer has to make to be successful is
(a) 10,000 (b) 2430 (c) 3200 (d) 5000
11. D is a real number with non –terminating digits after the decimal point.
D = 0.a1 a2 a1 a2 a1 a2…..with a1 & a 2 not both zero. Which of the following
when multiplied by D will necessarily give an integer?
(a) 18 (b) 198 (c) 100 (d) 288
12. P is the product of all the prime numbers between 1 to 100. Then the number of Zeroes at the end of P are:
(a) 1 (b) 24 (c) 0 (d) none of these
13. There are two disjoint sets S1 and S2 where
S1 = { f (1), f (2), f (3) , …………}
S2 = {g (1), g (2), g (3) , ……….} such that S1 U S2 forms the set of natural numbers. Also f (1) 2, y > -1 then which of the following holds good?
(a) xy > -2
(b) xy -2/y
(d) None of these
20. xn are either –1 or 1 & n ³ 4
x1 x2 x3 x4 + x2 x3 x4 x5 + x3 x4 x5 x6 + ……+xn x1 x2 x3 = 0 then n can be
(a) odd (b) even (c) prime (d)can’t be determined
21. What number should be subtracted from both 32534 & 33069 so that the resultant give the same remainder on division by a 3 digit number?
(a) 298 (b) 307 (c) 461 (d)can’t be determined
22. If x, y and z are odd integers which of the following is necessarily false?
(a) xyz is odd
(b) ( x – y) z is even
(c) (x – y ) (z + y ) x is even
(d) (x – y – z ) (x + z ) is odd
23. A, B and C are 3 cities that form a triangle & where every city is connected to every other one by at least one direct root. There are 33 routes direct & indirect from A to C & there are 23 routes from B to A. How many direct routes are there from A to C?
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25
24. If f ( 0, y ) = y + 1, f (x + 1, y) = f ( x , f (x, y )) Then, what is the value of f(1,2)?
(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. A and B are two cities 10 Km apart. A load of 80 Kg has to be transported from A to B. the courier service is charges @ 10 Rs per hour. The optimal speed that one can go without load is 10 Km/ hr, the speed reduces to 5 Km/hr with a weight of10 Kg. Further with 20 Kg (which is the maximum weight that can be carried), the speed is 2 km/hr. What is the minimum cost?
(a) 200 (b) 180 (c) 160 (d) 140
26. If the perimeter of a triangle is 14 and the sides are integers, then how many different Triangles are possible?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
27. There are two tanks, one cylindrical and the other conical. The cylindrical tank contains 500 litre limca more than the conical tank. 200 litres is removed both from the cylindrical and conical tank. Now the cylindrical tank contains double the volume of liquid in the conical tank. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank in litre?.
(a) 1000 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 1200
28. a,b & c are sides of a triangle. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ac then the triangle will be
(a) equilateral (b) isosceles (c)right angled (d) obtuse angle
29. There are seven consecutive natural numbers such that the average of the first five is n. then average of all seven numbers will be?
(a) n
(b) n + 1
(c) kn + 1/k where k is a positive constraint.
(d) n+2/7
Direction: For questions (30- 31).
There are three vessels A,B, and C with capacities 5, 3 and 2 respectively. There is a computer program that can perform certain functions as described below:
Drain (Y) : drains the liquid in a vessel Y.Fill (X,Y) : fill amount from Y into X such that the amount of liquid withdrawn from Yis equal to the liquid in X.
Empty (X,Y) : empty amount from Y into X such that the amount left in Y is equal to the amount of liquid in X.
30. The following operations are performed in succession
1. Fill (C,A) 2. ——— 3. Fill (C,A)
What should the second operation be if after the three operations A should contain one litre of liquid?
(a)Empty (C,B) (b)Empty (B,C) (c)Fill (C,B) (d)Fill (B,C)
31. In addition to the three operations in above problem, the fourth operation performed is Drain A. What operations should follow so that A contains four litres of liquid?
(a) Empty (B,A) , Drain (c)
(b) Empty (B,A) , Empty (C,A)
(c) Fill (B,A) , Fill (C,A)
(d) Fill (A,B) , Fill(A,C)
32. If the equation of x3 – ax2 + bx – a has three real roots then the following is true.
(a) a = 1 (b) a ¹ 1 (c) b = 1 (d) b ¹ 1
Directions: For questions (33-35) graphs of some functions are given mark the options
(a) If f ( x ) = 3f (-x)
(b) If f (x) = f (-x)
(c) If f (x) = – f (- x)
(d) If 3f ( x ) = 6 f (- x)
36. There are three books on table A which has to be moved to table B. The order of the book on Table A was 1, 2, 3, with book 1 at the bottom. The order of the book on table 1 should be with book 2 on top and book 1 on bottom. Note (You can pick up the books in the order they have arranged. You can’t remove the books from the middle of the stack)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Directions: For questions (37 – 38)
There are five machines A, B, C, D, E arranged in a straight line with 10 m distance between adjacent machines a robot is waiting at the origin and is assigned the job to transport raw material from the origin from the machines for processing. A is nearest to the origin at a distance of 10 meters. Each of the machine sends a signal to the robot when it requires some raw material. The robot then carries the raw material to the respective machines. How ever if any machine sends the signal when the robot has already left the origin then it will receive the signal only when it returns to the origin. Speed of the robot is given as 10 m/s.
Machine A sends a signal in the 1st second
Machine B sends a signal in the 5th second
Machine D sends a signal in the 6th second
37. Now if machine E sends a signal in the 8th second then what is the distance that the robot has travelled just before the machine E sends the signal ?
(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (d) 200
38. Now if the origin were at the other side 10 meter beyond E and the robot was at the new origin in the beginning. The robot after delivering the raw material to any of the machine goes to the origin which is nearest to him. Then what is the distance travelled before it receives the signal sent by machine E.
(a) 160 (b) 140 (c)180 (d) none of these
Directions: For questions (39 – 41):
Functions m & M are defined as follows:
m(a, b, c) = min (a+b, c,a)
M (a,b,c) = max (a+b,c,a)
39. If a = -2, b = -3 & c = 2 what is the maximum between[m(a,b,c)+M(a,b,c)] / 2 & [m(a,b,c) – M (a,b,c)] / 2
(a) 3/2 (b) 7/2 (c) –3/2 (d) –7/2
40. If a & b,c are negative, then what gives the minimum of a & b
(a) m(a,b,c) (b) -M (-a, a,-b) (c) m(a+b,b,c) (d) none of these
41. What is m (M(a-b, b,c), m(a+b,c,b), -M (a,b,c) for a = 2 b = 4, c = 3?
(a) –4 (b) 0 (c) –6 (d) 3
Directions: For questions (42- 43)
F (x) = 1 / 1 + x if x is positive
= 1 + x if x is negative or zero
f n (x) = f ( f n – 1 (x) )
42. If x = 1, find f 1(x) f 2 (x) f 3 (x) f 4(x) ………….f 9(x)
(a) 1/15 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/17
43. If x = -1 what will f 5 (x) be
(a) 2/3 (b)1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 4
44. There are eight sectors with areas S1, S2, S3, —– S8 in a circle of radius 1 unit. the total areas of the seven sectors is p /8 units. The area of the sector is given by Sj = 2(j – 1) for j>1.What is the angle subtended by sector S1 at the centre ?
(a) p /508 (b)p /1016 (c) p /2040 (d)p /127
45. 553 + 173 – 723 is divisible by
(a) both 3 and 13
(b) both 7 and 17
(c) both 3 and 17
(d) both 7 and 13
46. 100? x ? 200, such that x is divisible by 3 but not 7 and x is odd. The possible number of values of x is,
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 13
47. One red, three white and two blue flags are to be arranged in such a way that no two flags of the same colour are adjacent and the flags at the two ends are of different colours. The number of ways in which this can be done is,
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 12
48. a1 = 1 and an+1 = 2an + 5, for n being a natural number. The value of a100 is
(a) 5×299 + 6 (b) 5×299 – 6 (c) 6×299 + 5 (d) 6×299 – 5B in the other.
(b) Year1 is said to dominate over year2, if A1³ A2, and B1³ B2. There should be strict inequality in atleast one year.
33. Which of the following is true?
(a) Hardware and training dominate software throughout the period
(b) Hardware dominates the peripherals throughout the period
(c) Peripherals and Others dominate training in the year 94 – 95 and 98 – 99
(d) None of the above
34. Taking Peripherals Exports and Training together which of the following is true?
(a) 96 – 97 dominates 97 -98
(b) 97 – 98 dominates 98 – 99
(c) 98 – 99 dominates 97 – 98
(d) None of the above
35. In a bag a person can carry 10 books. The books are mathematics physics, management and
fiction. If a person carries a book of management, he has to carry two or more books of fiction. If
he carries a book of mathematics he has to carry two or more books of physics. In carrying books
he used to get certain points. To carry a book of management, mathematics, physics and fiction
each the points he got were 4, 3, 2, 1 respectively. He has to carry a book of each subject. So what
is the maximum no of points a person can get
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23
36. Five persons P, Q, T, S, M lives in a hut, palace, hotel, cottage, penthouse not necessarily in
that order. Each of them like two colours out of red, green, yellow, blue and black. P likes red
and blue. Q lives in a hut. T likes yellow and black and S likes the colour liked by P. the person
who lives in a palace doesn’t like blue or black colour where does M stay?
(a) palace (b) hut (c) cottage (d) pent house
37. There is a gathering to felicitate 7 cricketers T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. They are all seated on one side
of a rectangular table. V and W want to leave early and so will occupy the two positions on the
extreme right of the table. T is the man of the match and hence will occupy the centre position.
U and V are bitter enemies and should be seated as far as possible. Y, T and X are great friends
and so must be seated always next to each other. What is the position of X?
(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 3rd or 5th
38.Rita, Sita, Gita and Mita went to a dance party with Tarun, Arun, Varun and Karun.Rita did
not dance with Tarun or Varun, Gita knew only disco dance and Arun and Varun did not know
disco. Mita and Varun are bitter enemies and won’t dance with each other. Given a choice, Arun
won’t dance with Mita. Karun’s partener is Gita. Who was Mita’s dance partner?
(a) Tarun (b) Arun (c) Karun (d) Varun
39. Four persons A, B , C and D live in four houses which are Red, Green Blue and Yellow in colour.
A doesn’t live adjacent to the Yellow house. B lives in the Yellow house. The Yellow house is
adjacent to the Green and the Red house. What is the colour of A’s house?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) can’t be determined
Directions for questions 40 to 45 :
Factories Employment Fixed Capital Variable Cost Value Added
Government 18 15 14 22 25
Central 8 6 5 7 10
State 4 6 4 8 3
Central/State 6 3 5 7 12
Public 12 8 6 19 8
Private 55 65 72 54 62
Joint 15 12 8 5 5
Total 100 100 100 100 100
40. If the total work force was 76 million whereas the total value added was 225 million, then which of
the following had the maximum value addition per worker?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
41. Which of the following sectors has the maximum fixed capital invested per factory?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
42. If the variable cost is proportional to the number of employees and the production per employee,
then for which of the following is the production the highest?
(a) Government (b) Private (c) Joint (d) Public
43. If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry, which corresponds
to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much, did the government invest (in
Rs. Million) in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint sector?
(1 US $ = Rs. 45)
(a) 6500 (b) 2500 (c) 143 (d) 145
44. Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors, Japan, each
having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from the venture
due to losses occurring from labor problems. How much money will be disinvested?( Refered to
question 43, if required)
(a) Rs.246 million (b)Rs 6500 million (c) $246 million (d) $6500 million
45. Which of the following statement is true
(a) the number of govt employees are more than that of the number of factories in joint sector
(b)The number of employees in the public sector is same as fixed capital of joint sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Cannot say
Answer Key : Back to top
1.a 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.b 9.a 10.c
11.b 12.d 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.b 17.d 18.c 19.c 20.a
21.a 22.b 23.c 24.c 25.d 26.d 27.a 28.a 29.b 30.d
31.d 32.b 33.b 34.b 35.c 36.a 37.d 38.a 39.c 40.c
41.b 42.b 43.a 44.b 45.d

Note : In actual test-paper 10 questions on Critical Reasoning were also there in this section.


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